UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2023 with Detailed Explanation [GS Paper 1]

The UPSC Prelims Answer Key help both categories of students.

(a) one who have appeared for prelims and want to know how many marks they are expected to get based on which they can plan for mains exam.

(b) those students who will appear for prelims in future also need to understand the nature of questions so that they can prepare for the exam in the right fashion.

BELOW IS THE ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS that Rau's IAS has prepared for Prelims GS Paper-I (2023) to help you achieve both the objectives.

UPSC Answer Key & Explanation 2023 for GS Paper 1

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Qn. No. 1
Subject	Geography
Question	Consider the following statements: 1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake. 2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake. 3. Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one(b) Only two(c) All three(d) None
Answer	(b)
Explanation	Kolleru lake is fed directly by water from the seasonal Budameru and Tammileru streams and lies between Krishna and Godavari rivers hence statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 1 and 3 are factually correct.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Kishanganga river was in news because of the Indo-Pak water issues. https://www.dawn.com/news/1734060 Also Lakes, wetlands etc are evergreen topics for UPSC. Also they have appeared in news also. https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/one-million-winged-visitors-expected-this-season-to-kolleru-lake-in-ap/article66273859.ece Kanwar lake was the first Ramsar site to be declared in Bihar.
Primary Source of Info.	Atlas, Government of Bihar website, The Hindu.
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 2
Subject	Geography
Question	Consider the following pairs : *Port Well known as* 1.Kamarajar Port:First major port in India registered as a company 2.Mundra Port:Largest privately owned port in India 3.Visakhapatnam Port: Largest container port in India How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs
Answer	(b)
Explanation	Mundra Port is India’s biggest commercial port by volumes, has gained another distinction in container handling by overtaking State-run Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT) to become the leader by handling 5.65 million twenty-foot equivalent units (TEUs) in FY21, posting a growth of 18 per cent over the previous year.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	JNPT and Mundra port was in news recently. https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/logistics/adanis-mundra-port-pips-jnpt-to-become-indias-biggest-container-port/article34256771.ece Other major ports are also important.
Primary Source of Info.	Indian geography - Khullar
Nature of question	Factual
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 3
Subject	Geography
Question	Consider the following trees: 1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) 2. Mahua (Madhuca indica) 3. Teak (Tectona grandis)How many of the above are deciduous trees?(a) Only one(b) Only two(c) All three(d) None
Answer	(b)
Explanation	Jackfruit is evergreen tree hence incorrect. Mahua and Teak are deciduous trees.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Natural vegetation is a static important topic in Indian geography.
Primary Source of Info.	NCERT
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Easy

Qn. No.4
Subject	Geography
Question	Consider the following statements: 1. India has more arable area than China. 2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China. 3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one(b) Only two(c) All three(d) None
Answer	(b)
Explanation	https://www.financialexpress.com/opinion/india-can-learn-agri-policy-lessons-from-china/1748398/ Statement 1: India’s arable land area is 156 million hectares while China’s arable land area is 119 million hectares.Statement 2: According to the above articles, India’s proportion of irrigated area is 48% while China’s proportion of irrigated area is 41%.Statement 3: Agricultural productivity in China is almost 50 to 100% more than that of India.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	-
Primary Source of Info.	https://www.financialexpress.com/opinion/india-can-learn-agri-policy-lessons-from-china/1748398/
Nature of question	Factual
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 5
Subject	Geography
Question	Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland? (a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves (b) Marakkanam Salt Pans (c) Naupada Swamp (d) Rann of Kutch
Answer	(d)
Explanation	The Rann was a once a shallow part of the Arabian Sea, until a geological shift closed off the connection with the sea. The region became a seasonal marshy salt desert over the years. During monsoons the region fills up with water and forms a wetland. In the summer the water dries to create a bed of white salty land. The Great Rann is a bowl-shaped depression, its eastern edge merging into the drainage area of the Luni River.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Static question
Primary Source of Info.	Britannica
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No.6
Subject	Geography
Question	Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following? (a) Aluminium(b) Copper(c) Iron(d) Titanium
Answer	(d)
Explanation	India is endowed with large resources of heavy minerals which occur mainly along coastal stretches of the country and also in inland placers. Heavy mineral sands comprise a group of seven minerals, viz, ilmenite, leucoxene (brown ilmenite), rutile, zircon, sillimanite, garnet and monazite. Ilmenite (FeO.TiO2 ) and rutile (TiO2 ) are the two chief minerals of titanium. Titanium dioxide occurs in polymorphic forms as rutile, anatase (octahedrite) and brookite
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Reason/ Motivation of question	India is promoting aircraft manufacturing in which titanium is required. https://www.fortuneindia.com/macro/india-has-11-of-global-titanium-iron-deposits-but-imports-1-billion-worth-titanium-di-oxide-annually/112520
Primary Source of Info.	Indian bureau of mines https://ibm.gov.in/writereaddata/files/08172015131610Ilmenite%20and%20Rutile.pdf
Nature of question	Factual
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No.7
Subject	Geography
Question	About three-fourths of world's cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by (a) Argentina(b) Botswana(c) the Democratic Republic of the Congo(d) Kazakhstan
Answer	(c)
Explanation	Indonesia has emerged as the world’s second-largest supplier of cobalt, contributing to a sharp fall in the price of the battery metal and adding to western anxieties about Beijing’s dominance across the electric car supply chain. The south-east Asian country generated 9,500 tonnes of cobalt last year — 5 per cent of the global supply — up from minimal volumes before 2021. Despite its rapid growth, Indonesia remains a long way behind the world’s number one supplier, the Democratic Republic of Congo, which holds a 73 per cent global share.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	https://www.ft.com/content/aae97af3-02ac-4723-a6fd-dbb0e5de55ff
Primary Source of Info.	https://www.ft.com/content/aae97af3-02ac-4723-a6fd-dbb0e5de55ff
Nature of question	Factual
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 8
Subject	Geography
Question	Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin? (a) Cameroon(b) Nigeria(c) South Sudan(d) Uganda
Answer	(a)
Explanation	The Congo Basin spans across countries—Cameroon, Central African Republic, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Republic of the Congo, Equatorial Guinea and Gabon.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Congo basin was in news because of critical ecosystems declared by UNEP. It is being greatly affected by deforestation. https://www.unep.org/news-and-stories/story/critical-ecosystems-congo-basin-peatlands Also it was recently in news: https://news.mongabay.com/2023/05/inaugural-indigenous-womens-forum-spotlights-congo-basin-conservation/
Primary Source of Info.	Atlas
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No.9
Subject	Geography
Question	Consider the following statements : 1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya Sahyadri Ranges. 2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Ranges. 3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats.How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one(b) Only two(c) All three(d) None
Answer	(d)
Explanation	Amarkantak is in Maikala range.Anaimalai hills and cardamom hills are the southernmost point of western ghats. Seshachalam hills are part of Eastern Ghats.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Red sanders in news are found in Seshcalam areas (endemic). Also Biligirirangan Hills were also in news. https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/new-genus-of-wasp-named-after-soligas-community-in-karnataka/article66447767.ece Central hills are important static topics.
Primary Source of Info.	Atlas
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No.10
Subject	Geography
Question	With reference to India's projects on connectivity, consider the following statements: 1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat. 2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar. 3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China.How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one(b) Only two(c) All three(d) None
Answer	(d)
Explanation	TLH from Moreh – Tamu – Kalewa – Monywa – Mandalay – Nay Pyi Taw – Bago – Myawaddy –Mae Sot.BCIM corridor connects Kolkata and Kunming not Varanasi.East West corridor connect Porbandar and Silcher.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	India has pushed for early completion if trilateral highway. https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/infrastructure/ india-pushes-for-early-completion-of-trilateral-highway-from-northeast-to-cambodia/articleshow/93366983.cms Work started on East West corridor https://www.eastmojo.com/assam/2023/03/09/assam-work-on-east-west-corridor-road-project-begins-in-dima-hasao/
Primary Source of Info.	Indo-Asean document on trilateral highway.
Nature of question	Factual
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 11
Subject	Science
Question	Consider the following statements : Statement-I :India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production. Statement-II :Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer	(c)
Explanation	Natural Uranium contains only 0.7% of the fissile U-235 and 99.3% non-fissile U-238. This requires enrichment to the level of at least 3% in case of electricity production and at least 80% in case of bombs. Thus, the second statement is incorrect.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Basic understanding of fissile material, chain reaction and enrichment.
Primary Source of Info.	Prelims compass (S&T) 2023 Pg: 104
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Easy

Qn. No. 12
Subject	Environment
Question	Consider the following statements : Statement-I:Marsupials are not naturally found in India. Statement-II:Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer	(c)
Explanation	Statement 1 is correct: Marsupials are not naturally found in India. Marsupials are any members of the mammalian infraclass Marsupialia. All extant marsupials are endemic to Australasia, Wallacea and the Americas. A distinctive characteristic common to most of these species is that the young are carried in a pouch. Living marsupials include opossums, Tasmanian devils, kangaroos, koalas, wombats, wallabies, and bandicoots among others, while many extinct species, such as the thylacine, are also known.Statement 2 is incorrect: Most Australian marsupials live in dry scrub or desert habitat. In South America, marsupials live in forests or tropical rainforests. Marsupials can live in any part of the forest habitat, from the trees to the forest floor where, like the wombat, they burrow underground.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Current Affairs- News of illegal smuggling of kangaroos in India. https://www.bbc.com/news/world-asia-india-61518058
Primary Source of Info.	Wikipedia Animal diversity webSan diego zoo wildlife alliance
Nature of question	Current affairs
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 13
Subject	Environment
Question	Invasive Species Specialist Group' (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organisations? (a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature (b) The United Nations Environment Programme (c) The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development (d) The World Wide Fund for Nature
Answer	(a)
Explanation	The Global Invasive Species Database (GISD) is managed by the Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) of the IUCN Species Survival Commission. It was developed between 1998 and 2000 as part of the global initiative on invasive species led by the erstwhile Global Invasive Species Programme (GISP).
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Article on Invasive species https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Coimbatore/worst-invasive-species-among-plants-used-for-tank-beautification-in-coimbatore/article65494470.ece
Primary Source of Info.	IUCN http://www.iucngisd.org/gisd/about.php#:~:text=The%20Global%20Invasive%20 Species%20Database%20(GISD)%20is%20managed%20by%20the,the%20IUCN%20 Species%20Survival%20Commission.
Nature of question	Current affairs
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 14
Subject	Environment
Question	Consider the following fauna: 1. Lion-tailed Macaque 2. Malabar Civet 3. Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? (a) Only one(b) Only two(c) All three(d) None
Answer	(b)
Explanation	Lion-tailed macaque: The lion-tailed macaque is an Old World monkey endemic to the Western Ghats of South India.As arboreal and diurnal creatures, they sleep at night in trees (typically, high in the canopy of rainforest). These macaques are territorial and very communicative animals. The Malabar large-spotted civet, also known as the Malabar civet, is a viverrid endemic to the Western Ghats of India. It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List as the population. The Malabar civet is considered nocturnal and so elusive that little is known about its biology and ecology apart from habitat use. The sambar is a large deer native to the Indian subcontinent and Southeast Asia that has been listed as a vulnerable species on the IUCN Red List since 2008. Sambar Deer are quite elusive and are most active at dusk and at night.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/coimbatore/200-lion-tailed-macaques-to-be-translocated-to-grass-hills-forest/articleshow/97363061.cms?from=mdr https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/two-held-for-poaching-pregnant-sambar-deer/article66665296.ece
Primary Source of Info.	Prelims Compass-2023 (Environment)
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 15
Subject	Environment
Question	Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their km to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (a) Butterflies (b) Dragonflies (c) Honey Bees (d) Wasps
Answer	(c)
Explanation	Waggle dance is a form of communication by which the bees tell their nestmates where to go to get the best source of food to bring back to the hive.By measuring the angle of the dance in relation to the sun and the length of time the bee waggled its abdomen while moving in a figure of eight pattern, researchers have been able to map the distance and location where bees forage from month to month.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Article on Waggle Dancehttps://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/unlocking-secrets-of-the-honeybee-dance-language/article66603728.ece
Primary Source of Info.	The Hindu
Nature of question	Current Affairs
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 16
Subject	Environment
Question	Consider the following statements: 1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. 2. Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties 3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties 4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four
Answer	(d)
Explanation	Statement 1 is correct: Some Mushrooms like Fomes fomentarius have also been used in traditional medicine. It contains a variety of compounds that have been shown to have anti-inflammatory, antimicrobial, and antioxidant properties. Extracts of the fungus have been used to treat conditions such as ulcers, bronchitis, and tuberculosis. Statement 2 is correct: Mushrooms are a good source of vitamin B6, which is essential for proper brain function. They also contain tryptophan, an amino acid that is essential for proper brain function, and serotonin, a neurotransmitter that helps regulate mood, appetite, sleep, and mood. Mushrooms have been found to have antidepressant properties and are being studied as a potential treatment for mental disorders like anxiety, stress, and depression. Statement 3 is correct: Some mushrooms found to be promising producers of antifeedant compounds as well as insecticidal proteins. Statement 4 is correct: Some mushrooms like Roridomyces phyllostachydis have the bioluminescent or light emitting properties.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	https://www.businesstoday.in/technology/news/story/this-mushroom-could-one-day-replace-plastic-meet-tinder-fungus-371436-2023-02-25 https://scitechdaily.com/top-10-health-benefits-of-mushrooms-the-ultimate-superfood/https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC8307166/https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/mystery-of-meghalayas-glowing-green-mushrooms-7059942/
Primary Source of Info.	NCERT & Compass
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Moderate
Qn. No. 17
Subject	Environment
Question	Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels: 1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground. 2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. 3. They are omnivorous. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None
Answer	(b)
Explanation	Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian Squirrel is native to the warm, humid areas of the southern Indian subcontinent. It nests at the top of the trees as most of them are arboreal. The nest of a squirrel is called a dray and is woven from grass. Most Indian squirrels are arboreal. However, Himalayan marmot is a squirrel found in the Himalayas. Unlike tree squirrels, marmots are ground-dwellers that live in open grasslands and nest in burrows underground. (Thus, UPSC may even give answer as C). Statement 2 is correct : Squirrels are known for storing their food, such as nuts and seeds, in various locations, including underground. This behaviour is called caching, and it helps them survive during periods when food may be scarce, such as winter. Squirrels have excellent spatial memory and can remember the locations of their food caches.Statement 3 is correct: Indian squirrels are omnivores. They feed mainly on nuts and fruits but will also eat seeds, insects, small mammals and reptiles, eggs, and even sometimes chicks of birds.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	General awareness
Primary Source of Info.	--
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 18
Subject	Environment
Question	Consider the following statements: 1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water. 2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water 3. Some microorganisms can grow in a highly acidic environment with a pH below 3.How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one(b) Only two(c) All three(d) None
Answer	(c)
Explanation	Statement 1 is correct: A hyperthermophile is an organism that thrives in extremely hot environments—from 60 °C (140 °F) upwards. An optimal temperature for the existence of hyperthermophiles is often above 80 °C (176 °F). Hyperthermophiles are often within the domain Archaea, although some bacteria are also able to tolerate extreme temperatures. Some of these bacteria are able to live at temperatures greater than 100 °C, deep in the ocean where high pressures increase the boiling point of water. Statement 2 is correct: To protect themselves from effects of freezing water , many microbes produce antifreeze proteins. These molecules bind to microscopic ice crystals, preventing them from clustering together to form larger crystals. In this way they lower the water’s freezing point, causing it to remain liquid even at -18°C.F The nematode Panagrolaimus davidi occurs mainly along the coast of Antarctica, and can withstand temperatures as low as -80°C. It is one of the few organisms that can survive the freezing of its internal tissues. Statement 3 is correct: Acidophiles are microorganisms that show optimal growth in highly acidic environments. These are of two types. The extreme acidophiles dwell in environments with a pH value < 3, and moderate acidophiles grow optimally in conditions having pH values ranging between 3 and 5.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/microbes-at-the-top-of-the-world/article66763943.ece
Primary Source of Info.	Science Direct, ARTIS MICROPIA, Down to earth
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Easy

Qn. No. 19
Subject	Environment
Question	Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?(a) Fishing cat (b) Orangutan (c) Otter (d) Sloth bear
Answer	(b)
Explanation	Option b is correct: Orangutan (great apes) makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or to achieve a goal such as acquiring food and water, grooming, defence, communication, recreation or construction.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4027415/https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/chennai/four-police-personnel-suspended-for-aiding-gang-smuggling-orangutans/article66549286.ece
Primary Source of Info.	The Hindu
Nature of question	Current affairs
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 20
Subject	Environment
Question	Consider the following 1. Aerosols 2. Foam agents 3. Fire retardants 4. LubricantsIn the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four
Answer	(c)
Explanation	Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are a group of industrial chemicals primarily used for cooling and refrigeration. HFCs were developed to replace stratospheric ozone-depleting substances that are currently being phased out under the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer. HFCs are entirely man-made. They are primarily produced for use in refrigeration, air-conditioning, insulating foams and aerosol propellants, with minor uses as solvents and for fire protection. HFCs do not possess lubricating properties.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/union-cabinet-approves-indias-un-climate-pledges/article65722563.ece
Primary Source of Info.	Prelims & Mains Compass 2023
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 21
Subject	Indian Economy
Question	Consider the following statements: Statement-I:Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable. Statement-II:InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the 'Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002'. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Answer	(d)
Explanation	The InVITs mobilise money from the investors and the money is then invested in the infrastructure projects. Hence, they are pooled investment vehicles like mutual funds. While, the mutual funds mainly invest in shares and bonds, the InVITs mainly invest in infrastructure projects.The money earned by the InVITs is distributed among the investors in the 4 ways:Interest on capitalDividendRental income Repayment of capital.So far, income earned by unit holders on interest, dividend and Rental income was taxed, while repayment of capital was not taxed. However, in the Finance Act, 2023 proposed to impose tax on a portion of repayment of capital in the hands of unit holders in certain cases. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.The Finance Act, 2021 amended the SARFAESI Act, 2002 to include the pooled investment vehicles as borrowers under the act. The REITs/InVITs are pooled investment vehicles. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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Reason/Motivation of question	Finance Act, 2021 was amended to bring pooled investment vehicles such as REITs/InVITs as borrowers under the SARFAESI Act, 2002.Finance Act, 2023 was amended to impose tax on a portion of repayment of capital in the hands of unit holders of REITs/InVITs in certain casesIn the National Monetisation pipeline document, the NITI Aayog has stated that the investors in REITs/InVITs are protected under the SARFAESI Act, 2002. However, they are not protected under IBC, 2016. Hence, the IBC, 2016 needs to be amended to bring the REITs/InVITs under IBC.
Primary Source of Info.	Foundation class/Compass/Revision classes: Concept of REIT/InVIT.Latest developments: Finance Act, 2021 and Finance Act, 2023.
Nature of question	Current Affairs.
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 22
Subject	Indian Economy
Question	Consider the following statements: Statement-I:In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide, had carried out interest rate hikes. Statement-II:Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer	(a)
Explanation	In the post-pandemic recent past, Central banks across the globe hiked the interest rates to counter inflation caused due to increased fiscal spending during covid-19 and supply chain disruptions due to Russia-Ukraine war. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.The increase in the interest rates by the Central Banks is expected to increase the rate of interest on loans and consequently decrease in money supply and hence reduce the inflation rates. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Increase in the rate of interest in advanced economies such as US has led to adverse impact on the Indian Economy such as increase in net FPI outflows, significant Rupee Depreciation, fall in Forex Reserves, increase in yield rates etc. This adverse effect on the Indian Economy is referred to as “Taper Tantrums”.Hence, this question was asked in the above context.
Primary Source of Info.	Foundation class/Compass/Revision classes
Nature of question	Basic + Current Affairs
Difficulty level	Easy

Qn. No. 23
Subject	Environment
Question	Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change. Statement-II : Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer	(a)
Explanation	Statement 1 is correct: Carbon markets, for years short of puff, have at last become one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change. By the end of 2021 more than 21% of the world’s emissions were covered by some form of carbon pricing, up from 15% in 2020. Ever more businesses have to pay regulators for the right to release a tonne of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. Investors are getting interested too: trading on these markets grew by 164% last year, to €760bn ($897bn).Statement 2 is correct.Carbon markets help mobilize resources and reduce costs to give countries and companies the space to smooth the low-carbon transition. It is estimated that trading in carbon credits could reduce the cost of implementing NDCs by more than half – by as much as $250 billion by 2030. Over time, carbon markets are expected to become redundant as every country gets to net zero emissions and the need to trade emissions diminishes.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Current affairs - Carbon Market
Primary Source of Info.	https://www.economist.com/finance-and-economics/2022/05/26/carbon-markets-are-going-global
Nature of question	Conceptual + Current affairs
Difficulty level	Moderate to difficult

Qn. No. 24
Subject	Indian Economy
Question	Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of 'sterilization? (a) Conducting 'Open Market Operations' (b) Oversight of settlement and payment systems (c) Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments (d) Regulating the functions of Non-banking Financial Institutions.
Answer	(a)
Explanation	The RBI carries out sterilisation operations such as Open Market operations (OMOs) to control the total amount of money supply in the economy. As part of OMOs, RBI can perform two actions:Buy G-Secs to inject money during slowdown.Sell G-Secs to suck out excess money during Inflation.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	The RBI carried out Open Market Operations (OMOs) to inject money in the economy during the slowdown caused due to Covid-19.
Primary Source of Info.	Foundation class/Compass/Revision classes
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Easy

Qn. No. 25
Subject	Indian Economy
Question	Consider the following markets: 1. Government Bond Market 2. Call Money Market 3. Treasury Bill Markets 4. Stock Market How many of the above are included in capital markets? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four
Answer	(b)
Explanation	The Financial market in a country comprises of Money Market and Capital Market. Money Market includes raising of short-term capital (less than 1 year) through various instruments such as Treasury Bills, Cash Management Bills (CMBs), Commercial Paper, Call/Notice/Term Money, Tri-party Repos etc. These instruments are traded on the electronic trading platforms authorised by the RBI.On the other hand, Capital Market includes raising of long term capital (more than 1 year) through various instruments such as Shares, Corporate Bonds, Government Bonds etc. These instruments are traded on the stock market such as BSE and NSE authorised by SEBI.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Testing basic concepts of the Financial market.
Primary Source of Info.	Foundation class/Compass/Revision classes
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 26
Subject	Indian Economy
Question	Which one of the following best describes the concept of 'Small Farmer Large Field?(a) Resettlement of a large number of people, uprooted from their countries due to war, by giving them a large cultivable land which they cultivate collectively and share the produce (b) Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations (c) Many marginal farmers in an area together make a contract with a corporate body and surrender their land to the corporate body for a fixed term for which the corporate body makes a payment of agreed amount to the farmers (d) A company extends loans, technical knowledge and material inputs to a number of small farmers in an area so that they produce the agricultural commodity required by the company for its manufacturing process and commercial production
Answer	(b)
Explanation	The concept of “Small Farmer Large Field” is based on the idea that marginal farmers with fragmented landholdings should organise themselves into groups so that they can reap benefits from higher economies of scale.A group of marginal farmers can decide to grow common crops and practise collaborative farming. As part of collaborative farming, they can buy various inputs at lower prices, ensure higher productivity and ensure higher bargaining power in the market.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Government’s initiative to promote Farmer Producer Organisations (FPOs) which is based upon the concept of “Small Farmer Large Field”.
Primary Source of Info.	ICAR Report on “Small Farmers, Large Field”
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 27
Subject	Indian Economy
Question	Consider the following statements: 1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds. 2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. 3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None
Answer	(c)
Explanation	The Government declares MSP for 23 crops, including oilseeds such as Nigerseed. Hence, statement 1 is correct.Niger seed is cultivated as a Kharif crop. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.The tribal population use Niger seed oil for cooking. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Even though, Niger seed commands one of the highest MSP among the Kharif crops, the area under Niger seed cultivation has shrunk by almost 80% since 1980s.
Primary Source of Info.	Downtoearth
Nature of question	Conceptual + Current Affairs
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 28
Subject	Indian Economy
Question	Consider the investments in the following assets: 1. Brand recognition 2. Inventory 3. Intellectual property 4. Mailing list of clients How many of the above are considered intangible investments? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four
Answer	(c)
Explanation	Companies make investment in various Tangible and Intangible assets. Some of the tangible assets include equipment, building, inventory etc. On the other hand, intangible assets include Brand recognition, Intellectual property, customer list etc.The companies make investment in marketing leading to Brand recognition. This can enable them to make more profits.Inventory comprises of Goods which are yet to be sold and hence become tangible investments.Intellectual property such as Patents, Copyrights etc. may not have physical substance but bring long term value to the company. Hence, they are considered as intangible assets.Mailing list of clients enables the companies to capitalise on marketing strategies and better market their products. Hence, it can be considered as intangible assets.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Random
Primary Source of Info.	Ministry of Corporate Affairs Website.
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 29
Subject	Indian Economy
Question	Consider the following: 1. Demographic performance 2. Forest and ecology 3. Governance reforms 4. Stable government 5. Tax and fiscal efforts For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All five
Answer	(b)
Explanation	The 15th Finance commission has used the following criteria for the horizontal distribution of taxes between the states.Population (2011 Census)Demographic PerformanceIncome distanceForests and EcologyTax EffortsArea
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Reason/Motivation of question	Recommendation of 15th Finance Commission
Primary Source of Info.	Foundation class/Compass/Revision classes
Nature of question	Current Affairs
Difficulty level	Easy

Qn. No. 30
Subject	Indian Economy
Question	Consider the following infrastructure sectors: 1. Affordable housing 2. Mass rapid transport 3. Health care 4. Renewable energy On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four
Answer	(c)
Explanation	The Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative was established by the United Nations Office for Project Services to fill the SDG Financing gap in developing countries. It seeks to channelise public and private financing into large scale infrastructure projects in the following sectors:Renewable energyAffordable HousingHealth Infrastructure
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Reason/Motivation of question	News about alleged financial misconduct in the UNOPS S3i Initiative.
Primary Source of Info.	UNOPS Website
Nature of question	Current Affairs
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 31
Subject	Polity
Question	In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean? (a) The principle of natural justice (b) The procedure established by law (c) Fair application of law (d) Equality before law
Answer	(a)
Explanation	The concept of "due process of law" and "natural justice" are closely connected and often used interchangeably in legal contexts. While they are related, they have slightly different emphases.Due process of law refers to the legal principle that individuals have the right to be treated fairly and justly by the legal system. It ensures that before a person can be deprived of their life, liberty, or property, they are entitled to notice of the allegations against them and an opportunity to be heard in a fair and impartial manner. Due process is a fundamental concept in many legal systems around the world and is typically enshrined in constitutions or laws to protect individual rights.On the other hand, natural justice is a principle of fairness that governs administrative and judicial proceedings. It is based on the idea that individuals should be given a fair opportunity to present their case and that decisions should be made impartially, without bias. Natural justice typically encompasses two main principles: the rule against bias and the right to a fair hearing.The rule against bias ensures that decision-makers are impartial and free from any personal or financial interest in the outcome of the case. It requires decision-makers to be unbiased and act in an objective manner. This principle aims to prevent any perception of unfairness or partiality in the decision-making process.The right to a fair hearing entail that individuals are given an opportunity to present their case and be heard. This includes the right to be informed of the case against them, the right to call and examine witnesses, the right to present evidence, and the right to legal representation. The principle of fair hearing aims to ensure that decisions are based on a full and proper consideration of the relevant facts and arguments.In summary, due process of law is a broader concept that encompasses various legal protections, including the principle of natural justice. Natural justice, in turn, focuses on the fair treatment of individuals in administrative and judicial proceedings, ensuring impartiality and the right to be heard. Both concepts are fundamental to protecting individual rights and promoting justice within the legal system.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	--
Primary Source of Info.	https://www.legalserviceindia.com/legal/article-1549-concept-of-natural-justice.html
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 32
Subject	Polity
Question	Consider the following statements: Statement-I:In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons. Statement-II:In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer	(a)
Explanation	Statement 1 is correct because Prisons are clearly mentioned as Item number 4 under list II of Schedule VII.Statement two is also correct as the Prisons Act 1894 under Section IV clearly mentions the following:"Prison" means any jail or place used permanently or temporarily *under the general or special orders of a State Government* for the detention of prisoners,
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Recent release of criminals by the state governments has brought the issue of Prison management into the national news.
Primary Source of Info.	Constitution of India and The Prisons Act 1894
Nature of question	Current Affairs
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 33
Subject	Polity
Question	Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country? (a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws. (b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government. (c) It defines and limits the powers of government. (d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security
Answer	(c)
Explanation	Function of a constitution is to set some limits on the functions of the government and what a government can impose on its citizens in terms of rights. These limits are fundamental in the sense that the government may never trespass them.The notion of a limited government is also referred to as constitutionalism. Constitutionalism is the idea, often associated with the political theories of John Locke and the founders of the American republic, that government can and should be legally limited in its powers, and that its authority or legitimacy depends on its observing these limitations.https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/constitutionalism/
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Important aspect
Primary Source of Info.	NCERT
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Easy

Qn. No. 34
Subject	Polity
Question	In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights? (a) 1^st Amendment (b) 42^nd Amendment (c) 44^th Amendment (d) 86^th Amendment
Answer	(a)
Explanation	The Supreme Court has agreed to examine a PIL challenging changes made to the right to freedom of speech and expression by the first amendment to the Constitution in 1951, with the petitioner contending that the amendment damages the basic structure doctrine.Certain difficulties arose because of judicial decisions and pronouncements especially in regard to the chapter on fundamental rights in the first year of the functioning of the constitution (Eg Shankari Prasad etc). To overcome such challenges, Parliament enacted the 1st Constitutional Amendment to insert article 19(2) and article 31A, 31 B. Issues that arose in the first year of Constitution:The citizen's right to freedom of speech and expression guaranteed by article 19(1)(a) has been held by some courts to be so comprehensive as not to render a person culpable even if he advocates murder and other crimes of violence. In other countries with written constitutions, freedom of speech and of the press is not regarded as debarring the State from punishing or preventing abuse of this freedom.The citizen's right to practise any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business conferred by article 19(1)(g) is subject to reasonable restrictions which the laws of the State may impose "in the interests of general public". While the words cited are comprehensive enough to cover any scheme of nationalisation which the State may undertake, it is desirable to place the matter beyond doubt by a clarificatory addition to article 19(6).Another article in regard to which unanticipated difficulties arose was article 31. The validity of agrarian reform measures passed by the State Legislatures in the last three years has, in spite of the provisions of clauses (4) and (6) of article 31, formed the subject-matter of dilatory litigation, as a result of which the implementation of these important measures, affecting large numbers of people, has been held up.The main objectives of the 1st Constitutional Amendment were, accordingly to amend article 19 for the purposes indicated above and to insert provisions fully securing the constitutional validity of zamindari abolition laws in general and certain specified State Acts in particular. the opportunity has been taken to propose a few minor amendments to other articles in order to remove difficulties that may arise.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	The Supreme Court has agreed to examine a PIL challenging changes made to the right to freedom of speech and expression by the first amendment to the Constitution in 1951, with the petitioner contending that the amendment damages the basic structure doctrine.
Primary Source of Info.	Constitution of India
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Easy

Qn. No. 35
Subject	Polity
Question	Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India: 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes 2. The National Human Rights Commission 3. The National Law Commissions 4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal CommissionHow many of the above are constitutional bodies? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four
Answer	(a)
Explanation	NCBC is a constitutional body created through 102^nd CA inserted Article 338BNHRC is a statutory body Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. https://nhrc.nic.in/about-us/about-the-OrganisationNational Law Commission is an executive body created through notification of the Government of India, Ministry of Law & Justice, Department of Legal Affairs. https://lawcommissionofindia.nic.in/#:~:text=Law%20Commission%20of%20India%20is,Government%20(in%20the%20form%20ofThe National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) is a statutory body, India is a quasi-judicial commission in India which was set up in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986. http://ncdrc.nic.in/
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Static
Primary Source of Info.	Constitutional and Nonconstitutional bodies.
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Easy

Qn. No. 36
Subject	Polity
Question	Consider the following statements: 1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid. 2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take placed 3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None
Answer	(d)
Explanation	Statement 1 is incorrect as it is clearly mentioned in Article 71(2) that such acts shall not be invalidated as a result of such declaration.Article 71(2) If the election of a person as President or Vice- President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him in the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of the office of President or Vice-President, as the case may be, on or before the date of the decision of the Supreme Court shall not be invalidated by reason of that declaration.Statement 2 is incorrect as the constitution does not provide for any provision for the postponement of the election for the post of president.Statement 3 is incorrect as Article 111 which provides for the “Assent to the bills by the president” does not put any time limit under which such bill has to be assented.Article 111. When a Bill has been passed by the Houses of Parliament, it shall be presented to the President, and the President shall declare either that he assents to the Bill, or that he withholds assent therefrom: *Provided that the President may, as soon as possible after the presentation to him of a Bill for assent, return* the Bill if it is not a Money Bill to the Houses with a message requesting that they will reconsider the Bill or any specified provisions thereof and, in particular, will consider the desirability of introducing any such amendments as he may recommend in his message, and when a Bill is so returned, the Houses shall reconsider the Bill accordingly, and if the Bill is passed again by the Houses with or without amendment and presented to the President for assent, the President shall not withhold assent therefrom
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Election of the President was in the news recently and an important topic of the constitution.
Primary Source of Info.	Constitution of India
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 37
Subject	Polity
Question	With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill. 2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations. 3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill. How many of the above statements are correct? (a)Only one (b)Only two (c)All three (d) None
Answer	(a)
Explanation	The Question asks about Finance bill and not financial bill. Finance bill is an example of money bill. It is passed during the budget for enacting tax proposals. *Statement 1 is incorrect* because Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject the finance bill but only can recommend changes which the Lok Sabha can accept or not. Statement 2 is correct as After a money bill is passed by the Lok Sabha, it is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for its consideration. The Rajya Sabha has restricted powers with regard to a money bill. It cannot reject or amend a money bill. It can only make the recommendations. Statement 3 is incorrect because finance bill is a money bill and there is no provision for holding joint sitting for a money bill.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Understanding of the different types of Bills and the procedures associated with them.
Primary Source of Info.	Constitution of India
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 38
Subject	Environment
Question	Consider the following statements:Once the Central Government notifies an area as a 'Community Reserve' 1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest 2. hunting is not allowed in such area. 3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce. 4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices.How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four
Answer	(c)
Explanation	Statement 1 is incorrect : As per the section 36 D of Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act 2002 (WLPAA) - “The State Government shall constitute a Community Reserve management committee, which shall be the authority responsible for conserving, maintaining and managing the community reserve”. “The Committee shall consist of five representatives nominated by the Village Panchayat or where such Panchayat does not exist by the members of the gram sabha and one representative of the State Forests or Wildlife Department under whose jurisdiction the community reserve is located”. Statement 2, 3 and 4 are correct : As per Section 36 C (2) of the Wild life protection (Amendment) Act 2002 , restrictions and regulations applicable to the wild life sanctuaries are applicable to the Community reserves too. Hence statements are correct.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Wildlife protection (Amendment) Act 2022
Primary Source of Info.	Original Acthttps://mpforest.gov.in/img/files/WildLife_Act.pdf
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 39
Subject	Polity
Question	With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India, consider the following statements: 1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President. 2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block. 3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None
Answer	(b)
Explanation	*Statement 1 is correct* as under the Schedule V (Article 244) paragraph VI clearly mentions that the “Scheduled areas” shall be declared by the President.*6. Scheduled Areas.—(1)* In this Constitution, the expression “Scheduled Areas” means such areas as the *President may by order declare to be Scheduled Areas.* *Statement 2 is correct.* The Union Cabinet in April 2018 had approved the declaration of Scheduled Areas in respect of Rajasthan under Fifth Schedule to the Constitution of India. The areas comprising of 3 complete districts namely, Banswara, Dungarpur, Pratapgarh; 9 complete tehsils, 1 complete block and 46 complete gram panchayats covering 227 villages in district Udaipur, Rajsamand, Chittorgarh, Pali and Sirohi of Rajasthan, would be included in the Scheduled Areas in the State of Rajasthan. Hence, it can be deduced that Block comprising cluster of villages cannot be the lowest administrative unit of Scheduled Areas. But some villages from a block can be formed a cluster and can be admitted as the lowest unit in the scheduled areas. *Statement* *3 is incorrect.* Report by the Governor to the President regarding the administration of Scheduled Areas.—*The Governor of each State having Scheduled Areas therein shall annually*, or whenever so required by the President, *make a report to the President* regarding the administration of the Scheduled Areas in that State and the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to the State as to the administration of the said areas.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Important Static Part of the Constitution
Primary Source of Info.	The constitution of India
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 40
Subject	Polity
Question	Consider the following statements: Statement-I:The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration. Statement-II:Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer	(c)
Explanation	*Statement 1 is correct because under M Nagraj, 2006 SC has given triple test to identify the reservation in matter of promotion:*1. Proof of backwardness2. Inadequate representation3. Should not hamper the efficiency of administration under Article 335 *Statement 2 is incorrect as although Article 335 mentions “Efficiency of Administration” it does not “define” the term.*Article 335. The claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State. 1[Provided that nothing in this article shall prevent in making of any provision in favour of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes for relaxation in qualifying marks in any examination or lowering the standards of evaluation, for reservation in matters of promotion to any class or classes of services or posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State.].
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Important Static Part of the Constitution
Primary Source of Info.	The Constitution of India
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 41
Subject	History
Question	In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located? (a) Andhra (b) Gandhara (c) Kalinga (d) Magadha
Answer	(a)
Explanation	The Buddhist monastery at Amaravati was located next to Dhanyakataka, capital of the later Satavahanas. The Amaravati stupa was the largest in the Andhra country and is referred to in ancient inscriptions as a mahachaitya.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Core Subject
Primary Source of Info.	Upinder Singh: A History of Ancient and Early Medieval India
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 42
Subject	History
Question	With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements: 1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin. 2. Stupa was, generally, a repository of relics. 3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition.How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None
Answer	(b)
Explanation	The tradition of making stupas—originally funerary mounds—may be pre-Buddhist.The Mahaparinibbana Sutta tells us that eight stupas were built over the cremated remains of the Buddha and two others over the cremation vessel and embers of the funeral pyre.There are several isolated stupas and also small votive stupas.
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Reason/ Motivation of question
Primary Source of Info.	Upinder Singh: A History of Ancient and Early Medieval IndiaFine Arts NCERTPrelims Compass of Art and culture: Pg 16
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 43
Subject	History
Question	With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as (a) capital cities (b) ports (c) centres of iron-and-steel making (d) shrines of Jain Tirthankaras
Answer	(b)
Explanation	The premier Chola port was Puhar (also known as Kaveripoompattinam), the major Pandya port was Korkai, while Tondi and Muchiri were the important ports in the Chera kingdom.
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Reason/ Motivation of question
Primary Source of Info.	History Maps given in NCERTPrelims Compass of Art and Culture page 32Upinder Singh: A History of Ancient and Early Medieval India
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Easy

Qn. No. 44
Subject	History
Question	Which one of the following explains the practice of ‘Vattakirutal' as mentioned in Sangam poems? (a) Kings employing women bodyguards (b) Learned persons assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and philosophical matters (c) Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields and driving away birds and animals (d) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death
Answer	(d)
Explanation	The practice of vattakirutal was one in which a defeated king committed ritual suicide by starving himself to death, accompanied by those who had been close to him during his lifetime. One instance of Chera king practising such vattakirutal is mentioned in the Sangam Literature.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	–
Primary Source of Info.	Upinder Singh: A History of Ancient and Early Medieval India.
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 45
Subject	History
Question	Consider the following dynasties: 1. Hoysala 2. Gahadavala 3. Kakatiya 4. YadavaHow many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in the early eighth century AD? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) None
Answer	(d)
Explanation	The beginning of the 13th century is marked by the disintegration of the chola and the Chalukya empires. On their ruins emerged four independent kingdoms in this region. There were the Pandyas and the Hoysalas in the south, the Kakatiyas and the Yadavas in the north of this region.The Gurjara-Pratiharas were wiped off the political map by the Ghaznavids in the early 11th century. After the fall of the Gurjara-Pratihara empire, no single state took its place. Instead, there arose small independent powers like Gahadavalas in Kannauj, Parmaras in Malwa, Chalukyas in Gujarat, Chauhans in Ajmer, Tomars in Delhi, Chandellas in Bundelkhand, etc.Duration:Hoysala (10-14th century)Gahadavalas Rulers (11-12th century)Kakatiya Rulers (12-14th century)Yadava Rulers (12-14th century)
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Reason/ Motivation of question
Primary Source of Info.	IGNOU notesVarious NCERTsVarious websites
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Easy

Qn. No. 46
Subject	History
Question	With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs: *Literary work* *Author* 1.Devichandragupta:Bilhana 2.Hammira-Mahakavya:Nayachandra Suri 3.Milinda-panha:Nagarjuna 4.Nitivakyamrita:Somadeva Suri How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four
Answer	(c)
Explanation	Devichandragupta is written by Vishakhadutta in which the theme is Indian Sanskrit language political drama.Hammira-Mahakavya written by Nayachandra Suri is a 15th century Indian sanskrit epic poem.Its a famous biography of Chahamana King Hammira .Milindapanho written by Nagasen (also referred as Nagarjuna by Historian R S Sharma in the NCERT) is based on the dialogue between Indo-Greek king Menander and Buddhist Monk Nagasena. (However, some historians treat Nagarjuna and Nagasena to be different individuals).Nitivakyamrita is written by Somadeva Suri and is a famous handbook of polity composed in 32 chapters.
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Reason/ Motivation of question
Primary Source of Info.	Makhanlal NCERT of Ancient IndiaIndia’s Ancient Past by R S Sharma (Nagasen is referred as Nagarjuna on page 191, chapter 20- Central Asian contact and mutual impact)Prelims Compass of Art and culture (page 21)
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 47
Subject	History
Question	"Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects."The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India? (a) Buddhism (b) Jainism (c) Shaivism (d) Vaishnavism
Answer	(b)
Explanation	As per Jainism metaphysics: Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of entities such as stones, rocks, running water, and many other natural objects not looked upon as living by other sects.There are 2 Core metaphysical Concepts in Jainism -1- Dualism - Considers Two Category of Entities -1-JIVA means Living Beings (Soul) & 2-AJIVA (Non Living Beings -No Soul)2- Pluralism (Anekantvadism) - Consider all Entities(Living & Non Living ) have souls.(Question refers to this part of Metaphysical Philosophy )
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Reason/ Motivation of question
Primary Source of Info.	IGNOU noteshttps://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/35228/1/Unit-2.pdf
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 48
Subject	History
Question	Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres long from the river to the capital city? (a) Devaraya I (b) Mallikarjuna (c) Vira Vijaya (d) Virupaksha
Answer	(a)
Explanation	The credit for making the capital city of the Vijayanagara Empire one of the biggest cities in the 15th century goes to Deva Raya I. He realised that the scarcity of water supply, both for drinking and for irrigation, was restricting the growth of the royal capital. In c.1410 he had a barrage constructed across the Tungabhadra river and commissioned a 24 km long aqueduct from the Tungabhadra river to the capital. The account provided by Nuniz gives details of the projects undertaken by Deva Raya I that brought prosperity to the Kingdom.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	–
Primary Source of Info.	Satish Chandra NCERT chapter 9, page 116
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Easy

Qn. No. 49
Subject	History
Question	Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to the Portuguese? (a) Ahmad Shah (b) Mahmud Begarha (c) Bahadur Shah (d) Muhammad Shah
Answer	(c)
Explanation	Nino da Cunha, assumed office of the governor of Portuguese interests in India in 1529. Bahadur Shah of Gujarat, during his conflict with the Mughal emperor Humayun, secured help from the Portuguese by ceding to them in 1534 the island of Bassein and Diu.
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Reason/Motivation of question
Primary Source of Info.	Old NCERT of Satish Chandra (page 128)Spectrum of Modern India
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Easy

Qn. No. 50
Subject	History
Question	By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India? (a) The Regulating Act (b) The Pitt's India Act (c) The Charter Act of 1793 (d) The Charter Act of 1833
Answer	(d)
Explanation	Charter Act of 1833: This Act was the final step towards centralisation in British India.It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor- General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers.The act created, for the first time, the Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India.Lord William Bentick was the first Governor-General of India.It deprived the Governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor-General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	–
Primary Source of Info.	Spectrum & Prelims compass
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Easy

Qn. No. 51
Subject	Polity
Question	Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: 1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. 2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. 3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. 4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four
Answer	(b)
Explanation	Statement 1 is incorrect as Janani Suraksha Yojana is a centrally sponsored scheme under the National Rural Health Mission of the Union Ministry of Health & Family Welfare. Statement 2 is correct as It is being implemented with the objective of reducing maternal and infant mortality (includes new natal mortality) by promoting institutional delivery among pregnant women. The scheme is under implementation in all states and Union Territories (UTs), with a special focus on Low Performing States (LPS). Statement 3 is correct as It’s chief objective is to reduce maternal and infant mortality by promoting institutional delivery among pregnant women. Statement 4 is incorrect as its objective is to take care of pregnant women as a target group rather than providing the health facilities to sick infants up to the age of 1 year.
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Reason/Motivation of question	Flagship schemes of Government of India.
Primary Source of Info.	https://www.ilo.org/dyn/travail/docs/683/JananiSurakshaYojanaGuidelines/MinistryofHealthandFamilyWelfare.pdf
Nature of question	Government Schemes and Policies.
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 52
Subject	Polity & Governance
Question	Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: 1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women. 2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child-birth. 3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. 4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four
Answer	(c)
Explanation	Interventions under Anaemia Mukt Bharat are:Prophylactic Iron and Folic Acid supplementation Deworming Intensified year-round Behaviour Change Communication Campaign (Solid Body, Smart Mind) focusing on four key behaviours – (a) Improving compliance to Iron Folic Acid supplementation and deworming, (b) Appropriate infant and young child feeding practices, (c) Increase in intake of iron-rich food through diet diversity/quantity/frequency and/or fortified foods with focus on harnessing locally available resources and (d) Ensuring delayed cord clamping after delivery (by 3 minutes) in health facilities (e) Testing and treatment of anemia, using digital methods and point of care treatment, with special focus on pregnant women and school-going adolescents (f) Mandatory provision of Iron and Folic Acid fortified foods in government funded public health programmes (g) Intensifying awareness, screening and treatment of non-nutritional causes of anemia in endemic pockets, with special focus on malaria, haemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.Hence, only statement 1 is wrong and statement 2, 3 & 4 is correct.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Current Affairs (Budget)
Primary Source of Info.	–
Nature of question	Factual
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 53
Subject	Science & Tech
Question	Consider the following statements: 1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts. 2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer	(a)
Explanation	Carbon fibres are a new class of material that are replacing materials where the following properties like high specific strength, high stiffness, low density are desirable. Thus, carbon fibre-based composites are normally replacing steel, aluminium etc. in automobiles, aircrafts, shipping etc.Although, one challenge currently faced is that the recyclability of end-of-use carbon fibres is difficult as compared to the well-established recyclable processes of conventional material.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	With properties like high specific strength, high stiffness, low density and non-corrosive nature, carbon fibres can play a significant role in energy efficiency in the automobile, aircraft and shipping industry.
Primary Source of Info.	-
Nature of question	Factual
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 54
Subject	Science & Tech
Question	Consider the following actions: 1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously 2. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive 3. Detection of the tilt of the smart-phone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape modeIn how many of the above actions is the function of accelerometer required? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None
Answer	(c)
Explanation	Accelerometers are electro-mechanical devices that detect the acceleration of an object by measuring the vibration on the object. This vibration which is in turn measured as a change in charge is measured by the accelerometers. Thus accelerometers are commonly used in digital devices like mobile phones, laptops which change their display based on orientation. They are also used in vehicles to measure non-uniform acceleration to trigger airbags.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Random question. One may not focus on preparing such topics.
Primary Source of Info.	-
Nature of question	Factual
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 55
Subject	Science & Tech
Question	With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements: 1. Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed. 2. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate. 3. Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water.How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None
Answer	(b)
Explanation	Biofilters are important components of Recirculating Aquaculture Systems to remove nitrogenous wastes excreted by aquatic organisms. Here nitrifying bacteria are used as biofilters to oxidise ammonia and convert it into nitrites which are also toxic. Some bacteria also convert these nitrites into final products which are non-toxic nitrates.Biofilters are designed to filter pollutants and not to add nutrients and thus statement 3 is incorrect.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Aquaculture is recently being seen as an alternative food system. One of the challenges of aquaculture systems is the generation of waste water produced by metabolism of aquatic animals. This has necessitated the introduction of advanced biofilters to purify the water ecosystem.
Primary Source of Info.	-
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 56
Subject	Science & Tech
Question	Consider the following pairs: Objects in space Description 1.Cepheids:Giant clouds of dust and gas in space 2.Nebulae:Stars which brighten and dim periodically 3.Pulsars:Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapseHow many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None
Answer	(a)
Explanation	Cepheid variables are stars used as standard candles to measure the luminosity of objects in the sky. Thus pair 1 is incorrect.Nebulae are the birthplace of stars primarily made of gas and dust. Thus pair 2 is incorrect.Pulsars are neutron stars at the end of their lifecycle. Thus pair 3 is correct.
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Reason/Motivation of question	Important terms related to Astronomy
Primary Source of Info.	Prelims compass (S & T) 2023: Pg 37
Nature of question	Factual
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 57
Subject	Science & Tech
Question	Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?(a) Australia (b) Canada (c) Israel (d) Japan
Answer	(d)
Explanation	Quasi-Zenith is the navigation satellite system of Japan.Countries that have their own navigation satellite system include the USA, China, India, Russia, EU and Japan.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Navigation satellite systems of different countries.
Primary Source of Info.	-
Nature of question	Factual
Difficulty level	Easy

Qn. No. 58
Subject	Science & Tech
Question	Consider the following statements: 1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. 2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer	(d)
Explanation	In statement 1, the explanations for ballistic and cruise missiles are swapped. In statement 2, the explanations are swapped for Agni-V and Brahmos.
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Reason/Motivation of question	Important topics under Missile Technology
Primary Source of Info.	Prelims Compass (S&T) 2023: Pg 124-125
Nature of question	Factual
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 59
Subject	Environment
Question	Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution: 1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world. 2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution. 3. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury.How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None
Answer	(c)
Explanation	Statement 1 is correct: Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world. During the gold extraction process, mercury is used to bind with gold particles, forming an amalgam. This technique, known as amalgamation, is commonly used in artisanal and small-scale gold mining (ASGM) operations. The amalgam is then heated to evaporate the mercury, leaving behind the gold. This process releases significant amounts of mercury vapour into the atmosphere. Statement 2 is correct: Coal-based thermal power plants are a significant source of mercury pollution. When coal is burned to produce electricity in these power plants, mercury that naturally occurs in coal is released as a gas into the atmosphere. This mercury can then travel long distances and deposit into water bodies, soil, and vegetation. Statement 3 is correct: Mercury is a toxic substance, and there is no known safe level of exposure to it. Even low levels of mercury exposure can have adverse health effects, particularly on the nervous system.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	https://www.downtoearth.org.in/interviews/pollution/-the-regulator-should-monitor-mercury-in-the-air-in-kodaikanal--88091
Primary Source of Info.	Rau’s class notes & Compass
Nature of question	Current affairs: COP4- Minamata Convention on Mercury in 2022.
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 60
Subject	Environment
Question	With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements: 1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion. 2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None
Answer	(c)
Explanation	Hydrogen being combustible can be directly used in Internal Combustion engines. It is as good as any hydrocarbon. Thus statements 1 and 3 are correct.Alternatively hydrogen can also be used in fuel cells. Thus statement 2 is also correct.
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Reason/Motivation of question	Recently, GOI launched the National Green Hydrogen Mission.
Primary Source of Info.	Prelims Compass (S&T) 2023: Pg 87
Nature of question	Current Affairs
Difficulty level	Easy

Qn. No.62
Subject	Geography
Question	With reference to the Earth's atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct? (a) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times of that received at the poles. (b) Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation. (c) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere. (d) Infrared waves are a part of visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.
Answer	(c)
Explanation	Statement (a) is incorrect because the insolation received at the surface varies from about 320 Watt/m2 in the tropics to about 70 Watt/m2 in the poles. Equator receives comparatively less insolation than the tropics. Statement (b) is factually incorrect.Statement (c) is correct because some atmospheric gases, such as water vapour absorb and re-emit infrared energy from the atmosphere down to the Earth’s surface.Statement (d) is incorrect because infra-red waves is outside the visible spectrum.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Important Static Part
Primary Source of Info.	NCERT
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Easy

Qn. No. 63
Subject	Geography
Question	Consider the following statements: Statement–I:The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients. Statement-II:The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer	(d)
Explanation	The high temperature and moisture of tropical rainforests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose more quickly than in other climates, thus releasing and losing its nutrients rapidly. The high volume of rain in tropical rainforests washes nutrients out (leaching) of the soil more quickly than in other climates.
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Reason/Motivation of question	Important Static Part
Primary Source of Info.	NCERT
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Easy

Qn. No. 64
Subject	Geography
Question	Consider the following statements: Statement-I:The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter. Statement-II:The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer	(d)
Explanation	Statement (a) is incorrect because during summers water accumulates high amount of energy which it is unable to loose quickly by winters. Hence during winters land becomes extremely cold whereas water still remains warm leading to high thermal contrast. Statement (b) is factual.
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Reason/Motivation of question	Important Static Part
Primary Source of Info.	Isotherms map from NCERT
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 65
Subject	Geography
Question	Consider the following statements: 1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves. 2.in P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer	(c)
Explanation	There are two types of body waves. They are called P and S-waves. P-waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface. These are also called ‘primary waves’. The P-waves are similar to sound waves. They travel through gaseous, liquid and solid materials. S-waves arrive at the surface with some time lag. These are called secondary waves. An important fact about S-waves is that they can travel only through solid materials. This characteristic of the S-waves is quite important. P-waves vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave. The direction of vibrations of S-waves is perpendicular to the wave direction in the vertical plane. Hence, they create troughs and crests in the material through which they pass.
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Reason/Motivation of question	Important Static Part
Primary Source of Info.	NCERT
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Easy

Qn. No.66
Subject	Geography
Question	With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements: 1. None of them uses seawater. 2. None of them is set up in water-stressed district.3. None of them is privately owned. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None
Answer	(d)
Explanation	Mundra Thermal Power Station is located at Mundra in Kutch district in the Indian state of Gujarat. The power plant is one of the coal-based power plants of Adani Power. The coal for the power plant is imported primarily from Bunyu, Indonesia. Source of water for the power plant is sea water from the Gulf of Kutch.
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Reason/Motivation of question	It was in news.https://www.outlookindia.com/business/with-more-than-1-billion-debt-adani-s-mundra-power-plant-under-scanner-report-news-267695
Primary Source of Info.	Adani power https://www.adanipower.com/operational-power-plants/mundra-gujarat
Nature of question	Factual
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 67
Subject	Science & Technology
Question	‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following? (a) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes (b) Converting crop residues into packing material (c) Producing biodegradable plastics (d) Producing biochar from thermo-chemical conversion of biomass
Answer	(a)
Explanation	In 2016 an experiment conducted in ICMR prevented fresh outbreaks of Dengue in a small town in Australia.The method is called the Wolbachia method. ‘Wolbachia’ is a bacteria that, if introduced in mosquitoes, could stop disease-spreading viruses from growing and spreading.
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Reason/Motivation of question	Ways to control vector-borne diseases (often seen in news)
Primary Source of Info.	Prelims Compass 2022 (S&T): Pg: 110
Nature of question	Current Affairs
Difficulty level	Easy

Qn. No. 68
Subject	Environment
Question	Consider the following activities: 1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively 2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime 3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated watersHow many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None
Answer	(c)
Explanation	Statement 1 is correct: Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands as a carbon capture and sequestration method is known as enhanced weathering. It involves using natural geological processes to remove carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere and store it in solid form.When basalt rock is exposed to air and water, it undergoes a chemical reaction known as carbonation. During carbonation, the rock reacts with CO2 to form carbonate minerals, effectively capturing and storing the carbon. Statement 2 is correct: Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime (calcium oxide or calcium hydroxide) is a method for carbon capture and sequestration known as ocean liming or ocean alkalinity enhancement.By adding lime to the surface waters of the ocean. When lime reacts with seawater, it increases the concentration of carbonate ions (CO3²⁻), which helps to buffer the acidity and reduce the pH of the water. The carbonate ions can then react with CO2 dissolved in the seawater to form bicarbonate (HCO3⁻), effectively storing the carbon in a dissolved form. Statement 3 is correct: Carbon capture and sequestration (CCS) or carbon capture, utilization, and storage (CCUS) this approach involves capturing CO2 from industrial sources, compressing it into a dense form, and then injecting it deep underground for long-term storage.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Carbon Capture - Glasgow CoP 27
Primary Source of Info.	Rau’s class notes & compass
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 69
Subject
Question	'Aerial metagenomics' best refers to which one of the following situations? (a) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go (b) Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat (c) Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals (d) Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies
Answer	(a)
Explanation	Aerial metagenomics is related to Environmental DNA collected from the environment/habitats of certain species in that area.The DNA that is left by these species remains in the environment like water bodies, soil, air etc.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Environmental DNA has recently gained traction as a way to detect the presence of invasive species or presence of a species in difficult-to-reach habitats like deep ocean.
Primary Source of Info.	Economic Times
Nature of question	Current Affairs/Terms in biotechnology
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 70
Subject
Question	'Microsatellite DNA' is used in the case of which one of the following? (a) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna (b) Stimulating 'stem cells' to transform into diverse functional tissues (c) Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants (d) Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a population
Answer	(a)
Explanation	Microsatellites are that section of DNA which induce variation between individuals within a species and variations between closely related species. Thus it can be used as an indicator to trace the evolutionary history of species.Microsatellites are also used in DNA fingerprinting.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Important terms in Biotechnology
Primary Source of Info.
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 72
Subject	Indian Economy
Question	With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements: 1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using the US dollar or SWIFT system. 2. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer	(c)
Explanation	Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) is a Digital currency backed by the Central bank of a country. Just like currency notes issued by the Central Bank, the CDBC is a legal tender and accepted for the payment of various transactions within a country.This question has to be answered not by just taking into account the present design of CBDC, but also by taking into account its future possibilities.RBI’s concept paper on CBDC: PossibilitiesCBDC is a "Programmable money" as it can be programmed for certain selected users or within a specific region of a country. Further, CBDC may have an expiry date, by which they would need to be spent, thus ensuring consumption. Hence, the first statement is correct.To reduce the cost and time for cross-border payments, Multiple Central Bank Digital currency (m-CBDC) can be designed. This would enable cross border payments without the need for intermediaries such as SWIFT or use of international currency such as dollar. An example of CBDC involving different currencies is the BIS innovation hub project involving the central banks of China, Hong Kong, United Arab Emirates and Thailand collaborating on the Multiple Central Bank Digital Currency (mCBDC) Bridge Project. This project aims to develop an international settlement platform through which central banks can utilise CBDC for transactions by financial institutions. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Introduction of Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) by RBI
Primary Source of Info.	Foundation class/Compass/Revision classes: Basics of CBDCRBI’s concept paper on CBDC
Nature of question	Current Affairs
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 73
Subject	Indian Economy
Question	In the context of finance, the term 'beta' refers to (a) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms. (b) an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward (c) a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible (d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market
Answer	(d)
Explanation	BETA in the share market is an indicator used by investors to assess the risk attached to a specific stock. It enables the investors to understand whether a stock moves in the same direction as the rest of the market.
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Reason/Motivation of question	Excessive volatility in shares of Adani group in the backdrop of Hindenburg report.
Primary Source of Info.	SEBI’s Website
Nature of question	Current Affairs
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 74
Subject	Indian Economy
Question	Consider the following statements: 1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived. 2. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes. 3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.How many of the above statements are correct?(a) Only one(b) Only two(c) All three(d) None
Answer	(b)
Explanation	The SHG programme was originally initiated by NABARD in 1992. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. In the SHG-Bank linkage programme, the Bank lends money to the entire group (and not to individual members). The SHGs can then lend loans to individual members of the group. The group is collectively responsible for the repayment of loans to the Bank. Hence, statement 2 is correct.Both Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs through the SHG-Bank Linkage Programme. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	In the Union Budget 2023-24, the finance minister has highlighted that Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana National Rural Livelihood Mission has achieved remarkable success by mobilising rural women into 81 lakh Self Help Groups (SHGs)
Primary Source of Info.	NABARD’s Handbook on Forming Self Help Groups.
Nature of question	Current Affairs
Difficulty level	Medium

Qn. No. 76
Subject	Environment
Question	Consider the following statements: Statement-I:According to the United Nations’ ‘World Water Development Report, 2022;, India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year. Statement-II:India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world’s; groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of the world's population living in its territory.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer	(c)
Explanation	Statement 1 is correct: According to the UN’s World Water Development Report, 2022, the country extracts 251 cubic km or more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year; 90 percent of this water is used for agriculture. The report notes that India accounts for nearly 26% of groundwater abstracted globally. Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I: India is the world’s largest user of groundwater. But 89% of India’s extracted groundwater is being used for irrigation and not for drinking or sanitation needs. More than 60% of irrigated agriculture and 85% of drinking water supplies are dependent on groundwater. Hence, statement 2 is wrong.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/agriculture/restore-by-use-regenerative-agriculture-can-help-save-water-here-is-how-86065
Primary Source of Info.	Prelims Compass 2023
Nature of question	Current affairs
Difficulty level	Easy

Qn. No. 77
Subject	Polity
Question	Consider the following statements: 1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances. 2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention. 3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one(b) Only two(c) All three(d) None
Answer	(b)
Explanation	*Statement 1 is correct as according to Article 355:* It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the Government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.Statement 2 is correct as Article 22(3) exempts the state from providing the rights under 22(1) and 22(2) to the individuals held under preventive custody.Statement 3 is incorrect as Section 32 of Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002 provides for the admission of confession made before Police officers (not below the rank of Suprintendent of Police) to be admissible in the court of law.32. Certain confessions made to police officers to be taken into consideration.-(1) Notwithstanding anything in the Code or in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (1 of 1872), but subject to the provisions of this section, a confession made by a person before a police officer not lower in rank than a Superintendent of Police and recorded by such police officer either in writing or on any mechanical or electronic device like cassettes, tapes or sound tracks from out of which sound or images can be reproduced, shall be admissible in the trial of such person for an offence under this Act or the rules made thereunderhttps://www.satp.org/satporgtp/countries/india/document/actandordinances/ pota.htm
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Reason/ Motivation of question	On finding that a case booked against 33 suspected Naxalites under the Prevention of Terrorism Act (POTA) of 2002 is pending trial even after 18 years since the enactment was repealed, the Madras High Court on Wednesday, January 4, 2022, directed a special court in Poonamalee to expedite the proceedings.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/madras-hc-orders-expeditious-trial-in-case-booked-against-33-suspected-naxalites-under-pota/article66338867.ece
Primary Source of Info.	Constitution of India https://www.satp.org/satporgtp/countries/india/document/ actandordinances/pota.htm
Nature of question	Conceptual + current
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 78
Subject	International Relations
Question	Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine? (a) Angola (b) Costa Rica (c) Ecuador (d) Somalia
Answer	(d)
Explanation	As the Horn of Africa enters its sixth consecutive rainy season with no rain, displacement continues to climb as millions from Somalia, Ethiopia and Kenya struggle to survive amid scarce water sources, hunger, insecurity and conflict. Only Somalia is the country which has been facing civil strife since 1990’s.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	It was in news due to severe famine and was asked by UPSC in 2022 (civil war in Somalia).
Primary Source of Info.	Current Affairs
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 79
Subject	Environment
Question	Consider the following statements: 1. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realisation of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. 2. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer	(c)
Explanation	Statement 1 is correct: As per the Biological Diversity Act 2002, Biodiversity Management Committees are created for promoting conservation, sustainable use and documentation of biological diversity by local bodies across the country. The Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realisation of the objectives of Nagoya Protocol(Access and benefit sharing) .Statement 2 is correct: The BD Act grants BMCs the independent powers to levy charges by way of collection fees from persons collecting biological resources from their territorial jurisdiction.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	https://niua.in/csc/assets/pdf/key-documents/phase-2/Up-GreenC-and-BIO/Policy-paper-on-Biodiversity-Management-Committees.pdf
Primary Source of Info.	Rau’s class notes & compass
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Easy

Qn. No. 81
Subject
Question	With reference to Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert SeweII, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with (a) archaeological excavations (b) establishment of English Press Colonial India (c) establishment of Churches in Princely States (d) construction of railways in Colonial India
Answer	(a)
Explanation	Alexander Rea (1858-1924) was a British archaeologist who worked mainly in South British India. He is known for unearthing a sarcophagus from the hillocks of Pallavaram in Tamil Nadu. He was a Professional Adviser to the Government on the conservation of ancient monuments. (Source: Times of India) Albert Henry Longhurst (1876 – 1955) was a British archaeologist, working in India and Ceylon. From 1927 to 1931, he was in charge of the systematic digging of Nagarjunakonda. Robert Sewell (1845 – 1925) was a collector and magistrate in Madras Presidency in colonial India. A civil servant turned Indologist, he was a scholar in history. His book, ‘A Forgotten Empire Vijayanagar: A Contribution to the History of India’, published in 1900 is still considered as seminal work on this South Indian empire. (Source: Indian Express)James Burgess (1832^_1916), was the founder of The Indian Antiquary in 1872and an important archaeologist of India in the 19th century. He was head of the Archaeological Survey, Western India, 1873. From 1886-89 he was Director General, Archaeological Survey of India.Sir Walter Elliot, (1803-1887) was a British civil servant in colonial India. He was also an eminent orientalist, linguist, archaeologist, naturalist and ethnologist who worked mainly in the Presidency of Madras. In 1845 he excavated and collected important sculptures from the Amaravati Stupa, which at the time were sometimes called the "Elliot Marbles".
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Reason/ Motivation of question	–
Primary Source of Info.	Website of Archaeological survey of Indiahttps://asi.nic.in/about-us/history/Indian Express and Times of India
Nature of question	Current Affairs
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 82
Subject
Question	Consider the following pairs: *Site Well known for* 1.BesnagarShaivite cave shrine 2.BhajaBuddhist cave shrine 3.SittanavasalJain cave shrine How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one(b) Only two(c) All three(d) None
Answer	(b)
Explanation	The first site given is incorrect.Besnagar: The Heliodorus pillar is a stone column that was erected around 113 BCE in central India, Besnagar (near Vidisha, Madhya Pradesh). The pillar was called the Garuda-pillar by Heliodorus, referring to the deity Garuda. Heliodorus, was an ambassador of the Indo-Greek king Antialcidas from Taxila, and was sent to the Indian ruler Bhagabhadra. It contains some of the earliest known writings of Vasudeva-Krishna devotion and early Vaishnavism and is considered the first archaeological evidence of its existence.Bhaja Caves are a group of 22rock-cut caves dating back to the 2nd century BC located in the city of Pune, India. The inscriptions and the cave temple are protected as a Monument of National Importance, by the Archaeological Survey of India. It belongs to the Early Buddhist schools in Maharashtra.Sittanavasal, Tamil Nadu: It is known for the Sittanavasal Cave, a 2nd-century Jain cave complex. Jainism flourished here from 1st century BC to 10th century AD. The Arivarkovil or the Temple cave is initially dated to Pallava King Mahendravarman I (580-630AD) prior to his conversion from Jainism to Hinduism. It is noted for its paintings which have been painted in fresco-secco technique.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	–
Primary Source of Info.	Old NCERT of R S SharmaPrelims Compass of Art and Culture (Rau's IAS)
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 83
Subject	History
Question	Consider the following statements :Statement-I:7^th August is declared as the National Handloom Day. Statement-II:It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer	(a)
Explanation	The Swadeshi Movement which was launched on 7th August, 1905 had encouraged indigenous industries and in particular handloom weavers.The first National Handloom Day was inaugurated on 7 August 2015 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Chennai. This was to boost the idea of self-help and self-reliance on Indian goods to boycott foreign products. National Handloom Day has its origin in the Swadeshi movement of India during British rule in the year 1905.Both the statements given are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.
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Reason/ Motivation of question
Primary Source of Info.	https://www.mygov.in/campaigns/national-handloom-day/India today
Nature of question	Current affairs
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 84
Subject	Polity
Question	Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002: Statement-I:One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm × 400 mm. Statement-II:The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3 : 2.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer	(d)
Explanation	Statement 1 is incorrect as The flag code states that the tricolour can be of nine standard dimensions — 6300 × 4200, 3600 × 2400, 2700 × 1800, 1800 × 1200, 1350 × 900, 900 × 600, 450 × 300, 225 × 150 and 150 × 100 (all sizes in mm).It further adds that flags of 450 x 300 mm size should be used on VVIP flights, 225 × 150 mm on cars and all table flags should be 150 × 100 mm in size.Statement 2 is correct as the tricolour should be rectangular in shape and the length-to-width ratio should always be 3:2. The national flag should always be made of hand-spun and hand-woven wool or cotton or silk khadi bunting, it further adds.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	The Union government amended the country's flag code to aid the launch the ‘Har Ghar Tiranga’ (hoisting of flag in every home) from August 13 to 15 as part of the ‘Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav’, which will commemorate the 75 years independence. The move has been praised as well as criticised by some sections of the society.
Primary Source of Info.	https://www.mha.gov.in/sites/default/files/flagcodeofindia_070214.pdf
Nature of question	Current Affairs
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 85
Subject	Polity
Question	Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day: Statement-I:The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-II:On 26^th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer	(c)
Explanation	Statement 1 seems to be incorrect by the literal meaning notified by the government. As the PIB notification clearly says that “Constitution Day also known as 'Samvidhan Divas', is celebrated in our country on 26th November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India. On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India, which came into effect from 26th January 1950”. But one of the objective of such commemoration is to to promote the constitutional values. Hence Statement 1 is correct.Statement 2 is incorrect as 26^th November is the day of adoption of the constitution and not the day on which the Drafting committee had been constituted.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	The government celebrates constitution day every year on 26th November.
Primary Source of Info.	https://www.mygov.in/campaigns/constitution-day/
Nature of question	Current Affairs
Difficulty level	Easy

Qn. No. 86
Subject	Indian Economy
Question	Consider the following statements: Statement-I:Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II:Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer	(c)
Explanation	Switzerland is one of the largest exporters of Gold in the world. However, it is not among the top 5 countries in terms of Gold Reserves.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Increase in demand for Gold by the Central Banks due to rise in global inflation.
Primary Source of Info.	World Gold Council’s Website
Nature of question	Current Affairs
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 87
Subject	International Relations
Question	Consider the following statements: Statement-I:Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the ‘Trade and Technology Council'. Statement-II:The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer	(c)
Explanation	The EU-US Trade and Technology Council serves as a forum for the United States and European Union to coordinate approaches to key global trade, economic, and technology issues and to deepen transatlantic trade and economic relations based on these shared values.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	India has recently signed a similar pact with the European Union.
Primary Source of Info.	Current Affairs
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 88
Subject	Indian Economy
Question	Consider the following statements: Statement-I:India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods. Statement-II:Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India's 'Production-linked Incentive' scheme.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer	(d)
Explanation	India accounts for less than 2% of global export of Goods. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.Under the PLI Scheme, companies are offered incentives on incremental sales of products manufactured in India. Domestic companies and foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of the PLI Scheme. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Record Exports of $ 450 bn in 2022-23Launch of Foreign Trade Policy, 2023
Primary Source of Info.	Economic Survey 2022-23
Nature of question	Current Affairs
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 89
Subject	International Relations
Question	Consider the following statements:The ‘Stability and Growth Pact' of the European Union is a treaty that 1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union 2. makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities 3. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologiesHow many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None
Answer	(a)
Explanation	The Stability and Growth Pact (SGP) is a set of rules designed to ensure that countries in the European Union pursue sound public finances and coordinate their fiscal policies.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	In March 2020, the European Commission activated a general escape clause in the SGP, allowing member states to exceed the normal deficit and debt limits due to the sudden economic shock caused by the COVID-19 pandemic.
Primary Source of Info.	Current Affairs
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 90
Subject	International Relations
Question	Consider the following statements: 1. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the 'Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)’. 2. The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries. 3. The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments.How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None
Answer	(a)
Explanation	Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration, a non-binding agreement for better management of migration, adopted in 2018. It is the first inter-governmentally negotiated agreement, prepared under the auspices of the United Nations, to cover all dimensions of international migration in a holistic and comprehensive manner. The major goal of the compact is to assist nation states to frame well-managed migration policies. Aims for efforts to strengthen regular migration pathways and protect human rights of migrants.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	The inauguration speech of the new foreign minister Mauro Vieira, the Lula government announced this Thursday, January 5, Brazil’s return to the Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration in a statement sent to the UN (United Nations) and the IOM (International Organization for Migration).
Primary Source of Info.	Current Affairs
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 91
Subject	Polity
Question	With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: 1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. 2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None
Answer	(b)
Explanation	Statement 1 is incorrect as Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the States/Union Territories. Statement 2 is correct as the role of Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary Force to the Police in maintenance of internal security situations, help the community in any kind of emergency such as an air-raid, fire, cyclone, earthquake, epidemic etc., Statement 3 is correct as some states (Rajsathan) have raised battalions with the name of Border Wing Home Guard to prevent infiltration on the international border.
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Reason/Motivation of question	Recently in News
Primary Source of Info.	https://dgfscdhg.gov.in/about-homeguard#:~:text=The%20role%20of%20Home%20Guards,communal%20harmony%20and%20assist%20the
Nature of question	Current Affairs
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 92
Subject	Polity
Question	With reference to India, consider the following pairs: *Action The Act under which it is covered*1.Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms: The Official Secrets Act, 19232.Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties: The Indian Evidence Act, 18723.Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of Others: The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one(b) Only two(c) All three(d) None
Answer	(b)
Explanation	1. Correctly matched as Section 6 of Official Secrets act, 1923 provides for prohibition of Unauthorised use of uniforms, falsification of reports, forgery, personation, and false documents. 2. Incorrectly matched as it is the Section 7 of the Official Secrets act, 1923 provides for prohibition of Interfering with officers of the police or members of the Armed Forces of the Union. 3. Correctly matched as the amendment in 2019 to the Arms Act 1959 added new offences which included Celebratory fir also.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	–
Primary Source of Info.	https://www.indiacode.nic.in/bitstream/123456789/2379/1/A1923-19.pdf
Nature of question	Factual
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 93
Subject	International Relations
Question	Consider the following pairs: Regions often mentioned in news Reason for being in news 1. North Kivu and Ituri:War between Armenia and Azerbaijan 2. Nagorno-Karabakh:Insurgency in Mozambique 3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia: Dispute between Israel and LebanonHow many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one(b) Only two(c) All three(d) None
Answer	(d)
Explanation	North Kivu and Ituri : Conflict in Democratic Republic of CongoNagorno - Karabakh : war between Armenia and AzerbaijanKherson and Zaporizhzhia : Attacks sites in Ukraine
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Areas of Conflict / inspiration from PYQ 2022.
Primary Source of Info.	–
Nature of question	Current Affairs
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 94
Subject	International Relations
Question	Consider the following statements: Statement-I:Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States. Statement-II:The 'Arab Peace Initiative' mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and the Arab League.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer	(c)
Explanation	Although the Abraham Accords have been the main focus of Arab-Israeli peace-making since they were signed, the Arab Peace Initiative (API), introduced by the late Saudi King Abdullah 20 years ago, remains relevant. The Saudi leadership has made clear that it continues to adhere to the API as the mainstay of its approach to formalising relations with Israel. And declining popular support for the Abraham Accords in the Arab world may make the API once again the better reflection of a path forward for Middle East peace. Israeli political leaders have addressed the API in a variety of ways since it was first introduced. Ariel Sharon, the prime minister at the time, flatly rejected the proposal on the grounds that it would require Israel to accept a large number of Palestinian refugees and that it crossed Israeli “red lines.”
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Current Affairs (Abraham Accords)
Primary Source of Info.	–
Nature of question	Current Affairs
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 95
Subject	Sports / Awards
Question	Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards: 1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award:For the most Khel Ratna Award spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over period of last four 2. Arjuna Award:For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson 3. Dronacharya Award:To honour eminentcoaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams 4. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar: To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirementHow many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four
Answer	(b)
Explanation	Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award: For most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over a period of the last four years.Arjuna Award: It is officially known as Arjuna Awards for Outstanding Performance in Sports and Games and is the second-highest sporting honour of India.Dronacharya Award: To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams.Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar: The award recognizes the "involvement of corporates, voluntary organisations, and sports control boards, in the promotion and development of sports in the country" over the previous three years.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Awards are in news and the name of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award changed to Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award.
Primary Source of Info.	–
Nature of question	Current Affairs
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 96
Subject	Sports / Awards
Question	Consider the following statements in respect of the 44^th Chess Olympiad, 2022: 1. It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. 2. The official mascot was named ‘Thambi’. 3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. 4. The trophy for the winning team in the women's section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four
Answer	(b)
Explanation	44th Chess Olympiad: 1st time held in India. Mascot : Thambi Hamilton-Russell Cup: 1st place in the Open section Vera Menchik Cup: 1st place in the Women’s section
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Reason/ Motivation of question	First time Chess Olympiad held in India.
Primary Source of Info.	–
Nature of question	Conceptual / Current Affairs
Difficulty level	Difficult

Qn. No. 97
Subject	International Relations
Question	Consider the following pairs: Area of conflict mentioned in news Country where it is located 1. Donbas:Syria 2. Kachin:Ethiopia 3. Tigray:North Yemen How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None
Answer	(d)
Explanation	Donbas: Ukraine Kachin: Myanmar Tigray: Ethiopia
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Areas of conflict / inspiration from PYQ 2022.
Primary Source of Info.	–
Nature of question	Current Affairs
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 98
Subject	International Relations
Question	In recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught international attention for which one of the following reasons is common to all of them? (a) Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements (b) Establishment of Chinese military bases (c) Southward expansion of Sahara Desert (d) Successful coups
Answer	(d)
Explanation	The recent spate of coups in Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan has sparked a flurry of media attention and concern. https://www.theafricareport.com/153400/chad-guinea-mali-sudan-can-a-coup-be-a-springboard-for-democracy/
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Reason/Motivation of question	Inspired from PYQ 2022.
Primary Source of Info.	–
Nature of question	Current Affairs
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 99
Subject	Science & Tech.
Question	Consider the following heavy industries: 1. Fertiliser plants 2. Oil refineries 3. Steel plants Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None
Answer	(c)
Explanation	Green hydrogen as a low-cost renewable energy source can aid in decarbonizing hard-to-abate sectors such as refining, fertiliser industry, iron and steel etc.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	GOI recently launched the National Green Hydrogen Policy which aims to boost India’s decarbonization journey, besides giving impetus on adoption of renewable power.
Primary Source of Info.	Hard-to-abate sectors are covered under CCUS (Carbon Capture Utilisation and Storage) technologies in Prelims Compass 2023. Same logic can be applied to decarbonising strategies using green hydrogen.Prelims Compass 2023: Pg: 74
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Easy

Qn. No. 100
Subject	International Relations
Question	Consider the following statements about G-20: 1. The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues. 2. Digital public infrastructure is one of India's G-20 priorities.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer	(c)
Explanation	The G20 was founded in 1999 after the Asian financial crisis as a forum for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss global economic and financial issues.India's G20 Priorities: 1. Green Development, Climate Finance & LiFE 2. Accelerated, Inclusive & Resilient Growth 3. Accelerating Progress on SDGs 4. Technological Transformation & Digital Public Infrastructure 5. Multilateral Institutions for the 21st century 6. Women-led Development
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Reason/ Motivation of question	G20 summit held in India for the first time.
Primary Source of Info.	–
Nature of question	Current Affairs
Difficulty level	Moderate

Importance of UPSC Answer Key 2023

The UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2023 is crucial for candidates as it helps them:

Identify their correct and incorrect answers
Calculate their approximate marks in the examination
Analyze their performance and identify areas for improvement
Prepare for the UPSC Mains Examination

The UPSC GS Paper 1 is an objective type examination consisting of 100 questions for a total of 200 marks. Each question carries 2 marks, and there is a penalty of 0.66 marks or 1/3rd mark for each incorrect answer. The paper covers topics such as current events, polity, history, geography, economics, and environment.

In this section, we provide the UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2023 for GS Paper 1, covering all sets (Set A, Set B, Set C, and Set D). Candidates can compare their answers with the UPSC Answer Key to calculate their expected marks in the examination.

UPSC Answer Key 2023 for GS Paper 1 (Set A)

UPSC Answer Key 2023 for GS Paper 1 (Set B)

UPSC Answer Key 2023 for GS Paper 1 (Set C)

UPSC Answer Key 2023 for GS Paper 1 (Set D)

Attempt Prelims PYQs:

See: UPSC GS Paper- 2 CSAT answer Key

Check out: UPSC Final Result 2023

Updated: UPSC Prelims 2024 Answer key download

The UPSC will come out with its official answer key next year. You can't keep waiting for that as you want to know what are your chances to clear the prelims.

This is the UPSC answer key and explanation of the IAS Prelims Exam Analysis 2023 and it will help you in understanding your level of performance. If you are scoring somewhere from 80-85 marks in the paper then there is a chance that you will appear for the mains exam (expected cut-off for the general category aspirants). So, all the best to all of you.

Qn. No. 61
Subject	International Relations
Question	Consider the following countries: 1. Bulgaria 2. Czech Republic 3. Hungary 4. Latvia 5. Lithuania 6. Romania. How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) Only five
Answer	(a)
Explanation	Ukraine shares a land border with: Hungary, Romania, Poland, Russia, Belarus, Slovakia, Moldova.
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Ukraine - Russian war
Primary Source of Info.	ATLAS
Nature of question	Current Affairs
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 71
Subject	Indian Economy
Question	Consider the following statements with reference to India: 1. According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between ₹15 crore and ₹25 crore. 2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises quality under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer	(b)
Explanation	In 2020, the Government has amended the criteria for the classification of MSMEs. Earlier, the MSMEs were categorised on the basis of total investment. However, as per the new criteria, the MSMEs are categorised on the basis of composite criteria of Investment and Turnover. According to RBI’s Master circular on Priority sector lending, all the Bank loans to the MSMEs qualify as Priority sector Lending.
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Reason/Motivation of question	Recent changes in the definition of MSMEs.
Primary Source of Info.	Foundation class/Compass/Revision classes
Nature of question	Current Affairs
Difficulty level	Easy

Qn. No. 75
Subject	Polity
Question	Consider the following statements: Statement-1: India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care. Statement-II: Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer	(b)
Explanation
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Statement 1 is correct as going by the National Health Accounts report, majority expenditure goes to curative care. Statement 2 is correct as health finds its place in list 2 of the Seventh Schedule.
Primary Source of Info.	https://nhsrcindia.org/sites/default/files/2023-04/National%20Health%20Accounts-2019-20.pdf
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Moderate

Qn. No. 80
Subject	Polity
Question	Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India: 1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College. 2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State. 3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala. 4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four
Answer	(a)
Explanation	Statement 1 is incorrect as Article 55(2)(a) and 52(2)(c) limits the electoral college to only the elected members of the legislatures of the state and the parliament of India.Article 52(a) every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one thousand in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the State by the total number of the elected members of the Assembly;(c) each elected member of either House of Parliament shall have such number of votes as may be obtained by dividing the total number of votes assigned to the members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States under sub-clauses (a) and (b) by the total number of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament, fractions exceeding one half being counted as one and other fractions being disregarded Statement 2 and 3 are both incorrect but Statement 4 is correct as can be seen $QJwAAAABJRU5ErkJggg==$
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Reason/ Motivation of question	Presidential Election held in 2022.
Primary Source of Info.	Presidential Election notification by election Commission.
Nature of question	Conceptual
Difficulty level	Difficult

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