2022
Consider the following statements:
- The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
- The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
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With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:
- The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
- The law does, not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
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Consider the following statements:
- Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
- According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
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With reference to the writs, issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:
- Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
- Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
- Any public minded person can, be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A 1 and 2 only
- B 2 and 3 only
- C 1 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
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With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:
- Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
- As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
- It has seamless portability across the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 and 2 only
- B 3 only
- C 1 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
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With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
- As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
- There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
- The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
- The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A 1 and 3 only
- B 1, 2 and 3
- C 3 and 4 only
- D 2 and 4 only
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- A This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
- B This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
- C This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
- D The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.
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Consider the following statements:
- The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
- The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
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With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements:
- The Tea Board is a statutory body.
- It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Fanners Welfare.
- The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
- The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A 1 and 3 only
- B 2 and 4 only
- C 3 and 4 only
- D 1 and 4 only
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Consider the following statements:
- Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
- The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
- The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
- In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 and 2 only
- B 1, 2 and 4 only
- C 3 and 4 only
- D 3 only
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With reference to India, consider the following statements:
- Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
- Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Consider the following statements :
- A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
- When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
- A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A 1 and 2 only
- B 2 and 3 only
- C 1 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
2021
Consider the following statements:
- “Right to the City’ is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard.
- ‘Right to the City’ gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the city.
- ‘Right to the City’ means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to the unauthorized colonies in the city.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 3 only
- C 1 and 2 only
- D 2 and 3 only
Show Answer
Consider the following statements:
- In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
- In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lai contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
- As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C 1 and 3 only
- D 2 and 3 only
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With reference to India, consider the following statements:
- Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail.
- During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
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- A The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.
- B The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.
- C The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties.
- D The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.
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- A Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- B Ministry of Panchayati Raj
- C Ministry of Rural Development
- D Ministry of Tribal Affairs
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With reference to India, consider the following statements:
- When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
- State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
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- A A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government
- B A politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance
- C A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government
- D A society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary
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With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the following statements:
- Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
- A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
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With reference to India, consider the following statements:
- There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
- A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
- A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C 1 and 3 only
- D 2 and 3 only
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- A A committed judiciary
- B Centralization of powers
- C Elected government
- D Separation of powers
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- A the Right to Equality
- B the Directive Principles of State Policy
- C the Right to Freedom
- D the Concept of Welfare
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- A Legal right available to citizens only
- B Legal right available to any person
- C Fundamental Right available to citizens only
- D Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right
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With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
- N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
- In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
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- A A Democratic Republic
- B A Sovereign Democratic Republic
- C A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
- D A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
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We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model?
- As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited.
- In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
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- A a representative government of a nation with federal structure
- B a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
- C a government whose Head enjoys real powers
- D a government limited by the terms of the Constitution
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2020
Consider the following statements:
- According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State.
- According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Consider the following statements:
- The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.
- The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
- There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C 1 and 3 only
- D 2 and 3 only
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- A the matter of creating new All India Services
- B amending the Constitution
- C the removal of the government
- D making cut motions
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- A Right against Exploitation
- B Right to Freedom
- C Right to Constitutional Remedies
- D Right to Equality
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- A Long standing parliamentary convention
- B Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India
- C Article 113 of the Constitution of India
- D Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003
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With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct?
- MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
- A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations.
- MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.
- The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A 1 and 2 only
- B 3 and 4 only
- C 1, 2 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 4 only
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- A the Preamble of the Constitution
- B a Directive Principle of State Policy
- C the Seventh Schedule
- D the conventional practice
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- A government by legislature
- B popular government
- C multi-party government
- D limited government
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Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?
- Preamble
- Directive Principles of State Policy
- Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A 1 and 2 only
- B 2 only
- C 1 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
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- A all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government
- B the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it
- C the Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them
- D the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed term
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- A Directive Principles of State Policy
- B Fundamental Rights
- C Preamble
- D Seventh Schedule
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Consider the following statements:
- The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
- The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
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- A the final goal of a stateless society
- B class struggle
- C abolition of private property
- D economic determinism
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- A An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy
- B An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism
- C An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth
- D An agency for the implementation of public policy
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With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- They shall be enforceable by courts.
- They shall not be enforceable by any court.
- The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C 1 and 3 only
- D 2 and 3 only
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- A a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect
- B not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either
- C a part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
- D a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts
Show Answer
2019
- A First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
- B Rajamannar Committee (1969)
- C Sarkaria Commission (1983)
- D National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
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- A The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
- B The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
- C In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
- D State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.
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With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:
- The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
- When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
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Consider the following statements:
- The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
- The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Consider the following statements:
- The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
- The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
- The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
- If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 and 2 only
- B 3 only
- C 3 and 4 only
- D 1, 3 and 4 only
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Consider the following statements:
- The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
- The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
- The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 and 2 only
- B 3 only
- C 2 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
- No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
- An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
- A Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
- B Absence of restraint
- C Opportunity to do whatever one likes
- D Opportunity to develop oneself fully
Show Answer
2018
- A If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
- B If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
- C If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
- D If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
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Consider the following statements:
- No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
- The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation ?
- A Committee on Government Assurances
- B Committee on Subordinate Legislation
- C Rules Committee
- D Business Advisory Committee
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- A the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
- B the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
- C Article 19 is suspended in that State.
- D the President can make laws relating to that State.
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- A Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
- B Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
- C Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
- D Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution
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Consider the following statements:
- In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
- In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
- In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 and 3 only
- B 2 only
- C 2 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Consider the following statements:
- The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
- The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
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- A A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
- B A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
- C A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
- D A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
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With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:
- The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
- The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Consider the following statements:
- The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
- Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
2017
Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
- Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
- Abolition of untouchability
- Protection of the interests of minorities
- Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A 1, 2 and 4 only
- B 2, 3 and 4 only
- C 1 and 4 only
- D 1, 2, 3 and 4
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- A Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.
- B Rights are privileges which, are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.
- C Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
- D Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.
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- A An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
- B A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
- C A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
- D A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.
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- A Federalism
- B Democratic decentralisation
- C Administrative delegation
- D Direct democracy
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- A There is an independent judiciary in India.
- B Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States
- C The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
- D It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
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- A the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
- B the methods for strengthening executive leadership.
- C a superior individual with dynamism and vision.
- D a band of dedicated party workers
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- A the executive and legislature work independently.
- B it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
- C the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
- D the head of the government cannot be changed without election.
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- A Rights are correlative with Duties.
- B Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
- C Rights, not Duties, are important, for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
- D Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.
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- A The Preamble
- B The Fundamental Rights
- C The Directive Principles of State Policy
- D The Fundamental Duties
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- A anyone residing in India.
- B a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
- C any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
- D any citizen of India.
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Consider the following statements:
- In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
- According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
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With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements :
- A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
- Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Consider the following statements:
- The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
- Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
- Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 and 2 only
- B 2 only
- C 2 and 3 only
- D 3 only
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- A the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
- B the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
- C the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.
- D the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.
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- A Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
- B Participation of workers in the management of industries
- C Right to work, education and public assistance
- D Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers
Show Answer
2016
- A Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
- B Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership
- C Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
- D Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting
Show Answer
2015
Consider the following statements:
- The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State.
- The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
- A Preamble of the Constitution
- B Directive Principles of State Policy
- C Fundamental Rights
- D Fundamental Duties
Show Answer
- A Preamble
- B Directive Principles of State Policy
- C Fundamental Rights
- D Seventh Schedule
Show Answer
- A Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
- B Parliament can amend the Constitution
- C Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolve
- D Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha
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- A a simple majority of members present and voting
- B three-fourths majority of members present and voting
- C two-thirds majority of the Houses
- D absolute majority of the Houses
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- A The President of India
- B The Prime Minister of India
- C The Lok Sabha Secretariat
- D The Supreme Court of India
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- A protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
- B determine the boundaries between States
- C determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
- D protect the interests of all the border States
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With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements :
- The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
- No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
- All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
- A 1 and 2 only
- B 2 and 3 only
- C 2 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
2014
- A The Committee on Public Accounts
- B The Committee on Estimates
- C The Committee on Public Undertakings
- D The Committee on Petitions
Show Answer
- A Preamble to the Constitution
- B Directive Principles of State Policy
- C Fundamental Duties
- D Ninth Schedule
Show Answer
Consider the following statements
- The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
- All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?
- Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
- Appointing the Ministers
- Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
- Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A 1 and 2 only
- B 1 and 3 only
- C 2, 3 and 4 only
- D 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Consider the following statements :
A Constitutional Government is one which
- places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
- places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
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- A the President of India
- B the Parliament
- C the Chief Justice of India
- D the Law Commission
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- A advisory jurisdiction
- B appellate jurisdiction
- C original jurisdiction
- D writ jurisdiction
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Consider the following pairs :
Programme /
Project |
Ministry | ||
1. | Drought-Prone
Area Programme |
: | Ministry of
Agriculture |
2. | Desert Development
Programme |
: | Ministry of
Environment and Forests |
3. | National Watershed
Development Project for Rainfed Areas |
: | Ministry
of Rural Development |
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
- A 1 and 2 only
- B 3 only
- C 1, 2 and 3
- D None
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2013
With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements
- Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
- It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
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- A the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
- B the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
- C the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
- D None of the above
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- A The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabba
- B The Lok Sabha cannct consider the Bill further
- C The Lok Sabha may send the ‘Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
- D The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill
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- A Fundamental Rights
- B Fundamental Duties
- C Directive Principles of State Policy
- D Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
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Consider the following statements
- An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
- If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
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- A In India, the same ‘peraon cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
- B The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
- C No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
- D In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support
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- A with the consent of all the States
- B with the consent of the majority of States
- C with the consent of the States concerned
- D without the consent of any State
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- A To provide self-governance
- B To recognize traditional rights
- C To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
- D To free tribal people from exploitation
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Consider the following statements The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts
- consists of not more than 25 Members of the Ink Sabha
- scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government
- examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 and 3 only
- C 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
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In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?
- Members of the cabinet are Members of the Parliament
- Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the parliament.
- Cabinet is headed by the Head of the state.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
- A 1 and 2 only
- B 3 only
- C 2 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
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Consider the following statements
- The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
- The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
- The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 and 3 only
- C 1 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
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Consider the following statements
- National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
- The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
- The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 and 3 only
- C 1 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
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Consider the following statements
- The Chairmen and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
- While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 only
- C Both 1 and 2
- D Neither 1 nor 2
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